2024 Current 212-82 dumps Preparation through Our Practice Test [Q81-Q100]

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2024 Current 212-82 dumps Preparation through Our Practice Test

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NEW QUESTION # 81
You are the lead cybersecurity specialist at a cutting-edge tech organization that specializes In developing artificial intelligence (Al)products for clients across various sectors. Given the sensitivity and proprietary nature of your products, ensuring top-notch security is of paramount importance. Late one evening, you receive an alert from your threat Intelligence platform about potential vulnerabilities In one of the third-party components your Al products heavily rely upon. This component is known to have integration points with several key systems within your organization. Any successful exploitation of this vulnerability could grant attackers unparalleled access to proprietary algorithms and client-specific modifications, which could be catastrophic in the wrong hands.
While you are analyzing the threat's details, a member of your team identifies several unusual patterns of data access, suggesting that the vulnerability might already have been exploited. The potential breach's initial footprint suggests a highly sophisticated actor, possibly even a nation-state entity. Given the gravity of the situation and the potential consequences of a full-blown breach, what should be your immediate course of action to address the incident and ensure minimal risk exposure?

  • A. Disconnect the potentially compromised systems from the network, archive all logs and related data for future analysis, and shift core services to backup systems ensuring business continuity.
  • B. Alert the organization s legal and PR teams, preparing a communication strategy to notify clients and the public about the potential breach, ensuring transparency and proactive damage control.
  • C. Initiate an emergency patching protocol, immediately updating all instances of the vulnerable component across your infrastructure and closely monitor the network for further unusual activities.
  • D. Engage an external cybersecurity consultancy with expertise in nation-state level threats. Collaborate to devise a mitigation strategy while also running parallel investigations to understand the full scope of the breach.

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Immediate Containment:
* Disconnecting the compromised systems from the network is crucial to prevent further exploitation and lateral movement by the attackers. This limits their ability to cause additional harm.


NEW QUESTION # 82
RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26.
Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder.
Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
3 is the number of files present in the folder in the above scenario. A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system or network. A RAT can be used to steal sensitive data, spy on user activity, execute commands, install other malware, etc. To initiate a remote connection using thief client, one has to follow these steps:
* Navigate to the thief folder located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
* Double-click on thief.exe file to launch thief client.
* Enter 20.20.10.26 as IP address of server.
* Enter 1234 as port number.
* Click on Connect button.
* After establishing connection with server, click on Browse button.
* Navigate to Desktop folder on server.
* Count number of files present in folder.
The number of files present in folder is 3, which are:
* Sensitive corporate docs.docx
* Sensitive corporate docs.pdf
* Sensitive corporate docs.txt


NEW QUESTION # 83
A John-the-Ripper hash dump of an FTP server's login credentials is stored as "target-file" on the Desktop of Attacker Machine-2. Crack the password hashes in the file to recover the login credentials of the FTP server.
The FTP root directory hosts an exploit file. Read the exploit file and enter the name of the exploit's author as the answer. Hint: Not all the credentials will give access to the FTP. (Practical Question)

  • A. QcipherShield
  • B. ByteDefender
  • C. nullsecurlty
  • D. CodeGuard

Answer: C

Explanation:
John-the-Ripper Usage:
* John-the-Ripper is a popular open-source password cracking tool used to detect weak passwords. It works by performing dictionary attacks and brute force attacks on password hashes.


NEW QUESTION # 84
Elliott, a security professional, was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a Bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the nonreusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. identify the type of bastion host configured by Elliott in the above scenario.

  • A. Non-routing dual-homed hosts
  • B. External services hosts
  • C. One-box firewalls
  • D. Victim machines

Answer: A

Explanation:
Non-routing dual-homed hosts are the type of bastion hosts configured by Elliott in the above scenario. A bastion host is a system or device that is exposed to the public internet and acts as a gateway or a proxy for other systems or networks behind it. A bastion host can be used to provide an additional layer of security and protection for internal systems or networks from external threats and attacks . A bastion host can have different types based on its configuration or functionality. A non-routing dual-homed host is a type of bastion host that has two network interfaces: one connected to the public internet and one connected to the internal network. A non-routing dual-homed host does not allow any direct communication between the two networks and only allows specific services or applications to pass through it . A non-routing dual-homed host can be used to isolate and secure internal systems or networks from external access . In the scenario, Elliott was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the non-reusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. This means that he configured a non-routing dual-homed host for this purpose. An external services host is a type of bastion host that provides external services, such as web, email, FTP, etc., to the public internet while protecting internal systems or networks from direct access . A victim machine is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a system or device that has been compromised or infected by an attacker or malware . A one-box firewall is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a firewall that performs both packet filtering and application proxy functions in one device .


NEW QUESTION # 85
Steve, a network engineer, was tasked with troubleshooting a network issue that is causing unexpected packet drops. For this purpose, he employed a network troubleshooting utility to capture the ICMP echo request packets sent to the server. He identified that certain packets are dropped at the gateway due to poor network connection.
Identify the network troubleshooting utility employed by Steve in the above scenario.

  • A. dnsenurn
  • B. arp
  • C. ipconfig
  • D. traceroute

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 86
Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank.
Identify the information security element that ensures that Stella's transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario.

  • A. Availability
  • B. Confidentiality
  • C. Integrity
  • D. Non-repudiation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Availability is the information security element that ensures that Stella's transaction status is immediately reflected in her bank account in this scenario. Information security is the practice of protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Information security can be based on three fundamental principles: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Confidentiality is the principle that ensures that information is accessible only to authorized parties and not disclosed to unauthorized parties. Integrity is the principle that ensures that information is accurate, complete, and consistent and not altered or corrupted by unauthorized parties. Availability is the principle that ensures that information and information systems are accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. In the scenario, Stella purchased a smartwatch online using her debit card. After making payment for the product through the payment gateway, she received a transaction text message with a deducted and available balance from her bank. This means that her transaction status was immediately reflected in her bank account, which indicates that availability was ensured by her bank's information system.


NEW QUESTION # 87
Ryleigh, a system administrator, was instructed to perform a full back up of organizational data on a regular basis. For this purpose, she used a backup technique on a fixed date when the employees are not accessing the system i.e., when a service-level down time is allowed a full backup is taken.
Identify the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario.

  • A. Cold backup
  • B. Warm backup
  • C. Hot backup
  • D. Nearline backup

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cold backup is the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario. Cold backup is a backup technique that involves taking a full backup of data when the system or database is offline or shut down. Cold backup ensures that the data is consistent and not corrupted by any ongoing transactions or operations. Cold backup is usually performed on a fixed date or time when the service-level downtime is allowed or scheduled .
Nearline backup is a backup technique that involves storing data on a medium that is not immediately accessible, but can be retrieved within a short time. Hot backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is online or running. Warm backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is partially online or running.


NEW QUESTION # 88
Stephen, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to implement security measures that prevent corporate data leakage on employees' mobile devices. For this purpose, he employed a technique using which all personal and corporate data are isolated on an employee's mobile device. Using this technique, corporate applications do not have any control of or communication with the private applications or data of the employees.
Which of the following techniques has Stephen implemented in the above scenario?

  • A. Geofencing
  • B. Full device encryption
  • C. OTA updates
  • D. Containerization

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 89
An organization's risk management team identified the risk of natural disasters in the organization's current location. Because natural disasters cannot be prevented using security controls, the team suggested to build a new office in another location to eliminate the identified risk. Identify the risk treatment option suggested by the risk management team in this scenario.

  • A. Risk retention
  • B. Risk sharing
  • C. Risk modification
  • D. Risk avoidance

Answer: D

Explanation:
Risk avoidance is the risk treatment option suggested by the risk management team in this scenario. Risk avoidance is a risk treatment option that involves eliminating the identified risk by changing the scope, requirements, or objectives of the project or activity. Risk avoidance can be used when the risk cannot be prevented using security controls or when the risk outweighs the benefits2. Reference: Risk Avoidance


NEW QUESTION # 90
Tenda, a network specialist at an organization, was examining logged data using Windows Event Viewer to identify attempted or successful unauthorized activities. The logs analyzed by Tenda include events related to Windows security; specifically, log-on/log-off activities, resource access, and also information based on Windows system's audit policies.
Identify the type of event logs analyzed by Tenda in the above scenario.

  • A. Application event log
  • B. Setup event log
  • C. Security event log
  • D. System event log

Answer: C

Explanation:
Security event log is the type of event log analyzed by Tenda in the above scenario. Windows Event Viewer is a tool that displays logged data about various events that occur on a Windows system or network. Windows Event Viewer categorizes event logs into different types based on their source and purpose. Security event log is the type of event log that records events related to Windows security; specifically, log-on/log-off activities, resource access, and also information based on Windows system's audit policies . Security event log can help identify attempted or successful unauthorized activities on a Windows system or network. Application event log is the type of event log that records events related to applications running on a Windows system, such as errors, warnings, or information messages. Setup event log is the type of event log that records events related to the installation or removal of software or hardware components on a Windows system. System event log is the type of event log that records events related to the operation of a Windows system or its components, such as drivers, services, processes, etc.


NEW QUESTION # 91
NetSafe Corp, recently conducted an overhaul of its entire network. This refresh means that the old baseline traffic signatures no longer apply. The security team needs to establish a new baseline that comprehensively captures both normal and suspicious activities. The goal is to ensure real-time detection and mitigation of threats without generating excessive false positives. Which approach should NetSafe Corp, adopt to effectively set up this baseline?

  • A. Utilize machine learning algorithms to analyze traffic for a month and generate a dynamic baseline.
  • B. Conduct a red team exercise and base the new baseline on the identified threats.
  • C. Analyze the last year's traffic logs and predict the baseline using historical data.
  • D. Continuously collect data for a week and define the average traffic pattern as the baseline.

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Dynamic Baseline Establishment:
* Machine learning algorithms can analyze vast amounts of network traffic data over an extended period, such as a month, to understand normal and abnormal patterns dynamically.


NEW QUESTION # 92
An international bank recently discovered a security breach in its transaction processing system. The breach involved a sophisticated malware that not only bypassed the standard antivirus software but also remained undetected by the intrusion detection systems for months. The malware was programmed to intermittently alter transaction values and transfer small amounts to a foreign account, making detection challenging due to the subtlety of its actions. After a thorough investigation, cybersecurity experts identified the nature of this malware. Which of the following best describes the type of malware used in this breach?

  • A. Spyware, gathering sensitive information about the bank's transactions and customers Rootki'
  • B. presenting itself as legitimate software while performing malicious transactions
  • C. embedding itself deeply in the system to manipulate transaction processes
  • D. Ransomware, encrypting transaction data to extort money from the bank

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Definition of Rootkit:
* A rootkit is a type of malicious software designed to provide continued privileged access to a computer while actively hiding its presence. Rootkits can be installed at the hardware, firmware, or software level of a system.


NEW QUESTION # 93
An attacker with malicious intent used SYN flooding technique to disrupt the network and gain advantage over the network to bypass the Firewall. You are working with a security architect to design security standards and plan for your organization. The network traffic was captured by the SOC team and was provided to you to perform a detailed analysis. Study the Synflood.pcapng file and determine the source IP address.
Note: Synflood.pcapng file is present in the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.

  • A. 20.20.10.59
  • B. 20.20.10.19
  • C. 20.20.10.180
  • D. 20.20.10.60

Answer: B

Explanation:
20.20.10.19 is the source IP address of the SYN flooding attack in the above scenario. SYN flooding is a type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack that exploits the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) three-way handshake process to disrupt the network and gain advantage over the network to bypass the firewall. SYN flooding sends a large number of SYN packets with spoofed source IP addresses to a target server, causing it to allocate resources and wait for the corresponding ACK packets that never arrive. This exhausts the server's resources and prevents it from accepting legitimate requests . To determine the source IP address of the SYN flooding attack, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to the Documents folder of Attacker-1 machine.
Double-click on Synflood.pcapng file to open it with Wireshark.
Click on Statistics menu and select Conversations option.
Click on TCP tab and sort the list by Bytes column in descending order.
Observe the IP address that has sent the most bytes to 20.20.10.26 (target server).
The IP address that has sent the most bytes to 20.20.10.26 is 20.20.10.19 , which is the source IP address of the SYN flooding attack.


NEW QUESTION # 94
A disgruntled employee has set up a RAT (Remote Access Trojan) server in one of the machines in the target network to steal sensitive corporate documents. The IP address of the target machine where the RAT is installed is 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection to the target machine from the "Attacker Machine-1" using the Theef client. Locate the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder in the target machine's Documents directory and determine the number of files. Mint: Theef folder is located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef of the Attacker Machine1.

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
The number of files in the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder is 4. This can be verified by initiating a remote connection to the target machine from the "Attacker Machine-1" using Theef client. Theef is a Remote Access Trojan (RAT) that allows an attacker to remotely control a victim's machine and perform various malicious activities. To connect to the target machine using Theef client, one can follow these steps:
Launch Theef client from Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef on the "Attacker Machine-1".
Enter the IP address of the target machine (20.20.10.26) and click on Connect.
Wait for a few seconds until a connection is established and a message box appears saying "Connection Successful".
Click on OK to close the message box and access the remote desktop of the target machine.
Navigate to the Documents directory and locate the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder.
Open the folder and count the number of files in it. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: Reference: [Theef Client Tutorial], [Screenshot of Theef client showing remote desktop and folder]


NEW QUESTION # 95
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe". You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)

  • A. Stuxnet
  • B. Conficker
  • C. KLEZ
  • D. ZEUS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malware


NEW QUESTION # 96
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe".
You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the"Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)

  • A. Stuxnet
  • B. Conficker
  • C. KLEZ
  • D. ZEUS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:
* Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
* Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
* Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
* Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious.
The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malware


NEW QUESTION # 97
A large-scale financial Institution was targeted by a sophisticated cyber-attack that resulted In substantial data leakage and financial loss. The attack was unique in its execution, involving multiple stages and techniques that evaded traditional security measures. The institution's cybersecurity team, in their post-incident analysis, discovered that the attackers followed a complex methodology aligning with a well-known hacking framework. Identifying the framework used by the attackers is crucial for the institution to revise its defense strategies. Which of the following hacking frameworks/methodologles most likely corresponds to the attack pattern observed?

  • A. ISO/IEC 27001. focusing on information security management systems
  • B. NIST Cybersecurity Framework, primarily used for managing cybersecurity risks
  • C. MITRE ATT&CK, encompassing a wide range of tactics and techniques used in real-world attacks
  • D. OWASP Top Ten. focusing on web application security risks

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Step by Step Explanation with All References from CyberSecurity:
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework:
* MITRE ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.


NEW QUESTION # 98
Riley sent a secret message to Louis. Before sending the message, Riley digitally signed the message using his private key. Louis received the message, verified the digital signature using the corresponding key to ensure that the message was not tampered during transit.
Which of the following keys did Louis use to verify the digital signature in the above scenario?

  • A. Riley's private key
  • B. Louis's private key
  • C. Louis's public key
  • D. Riley's public key

Answer: D

Explanation:
Riley's public key is the key that Louis used to verify the digital signature in the above scenario. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document. A digital signature is created by applying a hash function to the message or document and then encrypting the hash value with the sender's private key. A digital signature can be verified by decrypting the hash value with the sender's public key and comparing it with the hash value of the original message or document . Riley's public key is the key that corresponds to Riley's private key, which he used to sign the message. Louis's public key is the key that corresponds to Louis's private key, which he may use to encrypt or decrypt messages with Riley. Louis's private key is the key that only Louis knows and can use to sign or decrypt messages.
Riley's private key is the key that only Riley knows and can use to sign or encrypt messages.


NEW QUESTION # 99
A web application, www.moviescope.com, was found to be prone to SQL injection attacks. You are tasked to exploit the web application and fetch the user data. Identify the contact number (Contact) of a user, Steve, in the moviescope database. Note: You already have an account on the web application, and your credentials are sam/test. (Practical Question)

  • A. 1-202-509-8421
  • B. 01-202-509-7364
  • C. 1-202-509-7432
  • D. 1-202-509-7316

Answer: D

Explanation:
* SQL Injection Basics:
* SQL injection is a code injection technique that exploits vulnerabilities in an application's software by inserting malicious SQL statements into an input field for execution.


NEW QUESTION # 100
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