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NEW QUESTION # 226
View MR 007400
MR 007400
Radiology Report
Patient: J. Lowe Date of Service: 06/10/XX
Age: 45
MR#: 4589799
Account #: 3216770
Location: ABC Imaging Center
Study: Mammogram bilateral screening, all views, producing direct digital image Reason: Screen Bilateral digital mammography with computer-aided detection (CAD) No previous mammograms are available for comparison.
Clinical history: The patient has a positive family history (mother and sister) of breast cancer.
Mammogram was read with the assistance of GE iCAD (computerized diagnostic) system.
Findings: No dominant speculated mass or suspicious area of clustered pleomorphic microcalcifications is apparent Skin and nipples are seen to be normal. The axilla are unremarkable.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
- A. 77067-50, Z80.3, Z12.31
- B. 77066, Z80.3, Z12.31
- C. 77067, Z12.31, Z80.3
- D. 77066-50, Z12.31, Z80.3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 227
What does the prefix "sub-" signify in medical terminology?
- A. Within
- B. Below
- C. Outside
- D. Above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The prefix "sub-" means below or under.
Common examples include subcutaneous (below the skin) and sublingual (under the tongue).
This is a core concept tested under medical terminology on the CPC exam.
NEW QUESTION # 228
The CPTcode book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, with some descriptions requiring the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.
What is the full description of CPTcode 35860?
- A. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity
- B. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck and/or extremity
- C. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; excluding extremity
- D. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; extremity
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the CPTcode book, code 35860 describes an "Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection" in multiple areas, specifically including the neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity. This code is used when a surgeon explores these areas postoperatively to locate and address complications such as bleeding, clots, or infections.
B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fully encompass all the areas listed in the actual description of CPT code 35860, which includes all four regions (neck, chest, abdomen, and extremity).
Thus, the correct answer is A. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity.
NEW QUESTION # 229
Patient has esotropia of the right eye and presents to operating suite for strabismus surgery. The physician resects the medial rectus horizontal and lateral rectus muscles of the eye and secures them with adjustable sutures. Extensive scar tissue is noted, due to a previous surgery involving an extraocular muscle. Extraocular muscle is isolated, and the muscle is freed from surrounding scar tissues.
What CPT codes are reported for this surgery?
- A. 67312, 67335
- B. 67314, 67334
- C. 67316, 67335
- D. 67311, 67334
Answer: B
Explanation:
Esotropia of the right eye: Indicates strabismus surgery is required.
Resection of medial rectus horizontal and lateral rectus muscles: Specific muscles addressed during the surgery.
Adjustable sutures: Used in securing the muscles, indicating specific techniques.
Extensive scar tissue from previous surgery: Requires additional work and isolation.
CPT codes 67314 and 67334 are used to report the resection of two muscles with adjustable sutures (67314) and surgery on an extraocular muscle involving extensive scar tissue (67334).
NEW QUESTION # 230
A patient underwent a cystourethroscopy with a pyeloscopy using lithotripsy to break up the ureteral calculus. An indwelling stent was also inserted during the same operative session on the same side. This service was performed in the outpatient hospital surgery center.
What CPT coding reported?
- A. 0
- B. 52353, 52332-51
- C. 52325, 52332-51
- D. 52352, 52332-51
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cystourethroscopy: This is a procedure that involves the use of a cystoscope to look inside the urethra and bladder.
Pyeloscopy: Involves the examination of the upper urinary tract, typically done through the cystoscope.
Lithotripsy: A procedure that uses shock waves or a laser to break up stones in the kidney, bladder, or ureter.
Indwelling stent insertion: A procedure to place a stent in the ureter to help urine flow from the kidney to the bladder.
52356: Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy; with lithotripsy (ureteral catheterization and/or ureteral stent placement).
The code 52356 includes all components mentioned: cystourethroscopy, pyeloscopy, lithotripsy, and stent insertion performed in the same operative session.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year), HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 231
A 52-year-old woman has been experiencing discomfort and itching In the vulvar area for several months.
She has a history of abnormal Pap smears and a recent biopsy revealed vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN III). Decision has been made to perform a vulvectomy.
Procedure: Under general anesthesia, the surgeon made an incision in the vulvar area and removed the vulva (more than 80%), including the affected skin and deep subcutaneous tissue.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 56633, D07.1
- B. 56625, D07.1
- C. 56620, N90.1
- D. 56630. N90.1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procedure Coding:
56633 - Radical vulvectomy (removal of >80%), including deep subcutaneous tissue Documentation supports greater than 80% vulvar removal Deep tissue involvement confirms radical procedure Diagnosis Coding:
D07.1 - Carcinoma in situ of vulva
VIN III = high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
Classified as carcinoma in situ, not benign dysplasia
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
56620 / 56625 / 56630 - Partial or simple vulvectomy
N90.1 - Mild vulvar dysplasia (incorrect severity)
ICD-10-CM Official Guideline:
VIN III is coded as D07.1, not N90.x.
NEW QUESTION # 232
(Which statement accurately reflects CPT parenthetical guidance for codes69209and69210?)
- A. Report codes 69209 and 69210 when both are performed on the same ear.
- B. Report an E/M code and either 69209 or 69210 when the cerumen is impacted.
- C. When 69209 or 69210 is performed on both ears report the codetwice.
- D. The cerumen must be stated asimpactedto report either 69209 or 69210.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Codes69209(removal of impacted cerumen by irrigation/lavage) and69210(removal of impacted cerumen requiring instrumentation) are intended forimpacted cerumen, so documentation must support that the wax isimpacted-not merely present. That makes optionBthe most accurate statement. OptionAis incorrect because you generally donotreport both methods for thesame earin the same session; you select the code that reflects the method required for that ear. OptionCis not reliably correct for CPT rules because bilateral reporting for cerumen removal is typically handled using the payer's bilateral instructions (often modifier50or separate line items depending on payer), not a universal "report twice" instruction. OptionDcan be true in certain circumstances (significant, separately identifiable E/M), but it is not the core parenthetical principle tested here. CPC exam focus: impacted requirement + select the correct method code.
NEW QUESTION # 233
A physician prescribes carbamazepine to treat a patient with epileptic seizures. After six months, the physician performs a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of the drug in the patient.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is used for the six month-evaluation?
- A. 80157, R56.9
- B. 80157, G40.909
- C. 80156, G40.909
- D. 80156, R56.9
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct CPT code for a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of carbamazepine is 80156. The ICD-10-CM code G40.909 is used for epileptic seizures, not otherwise specified, which aligns with the patient's condition being treated for seizures.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 234
Multiple laceration repairs were performed:
Simple: cheek (2.5 cm), nose (3 cm)
Intermediate: left leg (9 cm), right leg (11.5 cm)
Complex: left upper arm (4 cm)
What CPT codes are reported?
- A. 13121, 12036-59, 12014-59
- B. 13121, 12034-RT, 12034-LT, 12014-59
- C. 13121, 12036-59, 12013-59, 12011-59
- D. 13121, 12034-59, 12034-59, 12013-59, 12011-59
Answer: C
Explanation:
Complex (arm, 4 cm) # 13121
Intermediate legs total = 20.5 cm # 12036
Simple face closures coded separately:
12013 (cheek)
12011 (nose)
Modifiers allow separate anatomical reporting.
Correct answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 235
A patient is seen at the doctor's office for nausea, vomiting, and sharp right lower abdominal pain. CT scan of the abdomen is ordered. Labs come back indicating an increased WBC count with review of the abdominal CT scan. The physician determines the patient has a ruptured appendicitis. The physician schedules an appendectomy and takes the patient to the operating room. The appendix is severed from the intestines and removed via scope inserted through an umbilical incision. What CPT and diagnosis codes are reported?
- A. 44970, K35.32
- B. 44970, K35.32.R11.2.R10.31
- C. 44960. K35.80. R11.2.R10.31
- D. 44950. K35.890
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procedure Coding:
44970 - Laparoscopic appendectomy
Appendix removed via scope through umbilical incision, confirming laparoscopic approach Diagnosis Coding:
K35.32 - Acute appendicitis with perforation and localized peritonitis, without abscess Documentation supports ruptured (perforated) appendicitis No abscess documented Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B - Signs/symptoms (R11.2, R10.31) not coded once definitive diagnosis is established C - 44960 = open appendectomy (not performed) D - 44950 = open appendectomy, diagnosis code incorrect ICD-10-CM Guideline Reference:
Do not code symptoms when a definitive diagnosis is confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 236
(A patient is in her otolaryngologist's office to receive therapeutic treatment forasthmatic bronchitis with status asthmaticus. A subcutaneous injection ofomalizumab (150 mg)is given in her left upper arm. What is the CPT and ICD-10-CM coding?)
- A. 96369, J2357 × 30, J45.52
- B. 90471, J2357 × 30, J45.902
- C. 90460, J2357 × 30, J45.52
- D. 96372, J2357 × 30, J45.902
Answer: D
Explanation:
Omalizumab is a drug reported withHCPCS J2357, and the dose is converted into billable units based on the code's unit definition. In CPC-style questions,150 mgis commonly represented asJ2357 × 30 units(i.e., 5 mg per unit # 150/5 = 30). Administration is atherapeutic subcutaneous injection, reported with96372(therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic injection; subcutaneous or intramuscular). Vaccine administration codes (90460
/90471) are not appropriate because omalizumab is not a vaccine. For diagnosis, the statement includesstatus asthmaticusbut does not specify severity category (mild/moderate/severe persistent). In the options provided, J45.902is the "unspecified asthma with status asthmaticus" concept, whereas J45.52 requires severe persistent asthma with status asthmaticus (not documented). Therefore, the correct pairing is96372 + J2357 × 30 + J45.
902. CPC exam tip: match administration code type (therapeutic injection vs immunization) and choose the most specific ICD-10-CM supported by documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 237
(Full Case:Pre/Post-op diagnosis:Grade 1 endometrial cancer.Procedure:Radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymph node sampling.Anesthesia:General.EBL:400 mL.Complications:None.Specimens:pelvic washings; uterus; tubes; ovaries; pelvic lymph nodes.Fluids:2 L crystalloid.Operative details:frog-leg position; perineum prepped sterile; Foley placed; midline vertical incision umbilicus to symphysis; exploration shows normal upper abdomen and bowel; no paraaortic adenopathy; pelvis/perineum normal; washings collected; round ligaments transected; retroperitoneal spaces opened; ureters visualized; ovarian vessels isolated/ligated; bladder flap taken down; uterine arteries, uterosacral and cardinal ligaments clamped/ligated; uterus removed; vagina closed; lymph node sampling left then right with removal of lymphatic tissue from external/internal iliac bifurcation to circumflex iliac vein and down to obturator nerve; tumor ~40% endometrial surface with <
50% myometrial invasion; closure in layers; patient tolerated well.Question:What CPTcodes are reported?)
- A. 58548, 38770
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 58210, 38770
Answer: D
Explanation:
The operative note describes anopen radical hysterectomyfor endometrial cancer with removal of theuterus, tubes, and ovaries(specimens listed) and extensive dissection ofuterine arteries, uterosacral and cardinal ligaments, consistent with aradicalprocedure. The approach is clearlyabdominal/open(midline vertical incision and abdominal entry), not laparoscopic, so a laparoscopic radical hysterectomy code (such as 58548) is not appropriate. In the answer set,58210represents aradical abdominal hysterectomy(with appropriate extent for malignancy management). In addition, the surgeon performedpelvic lymph node samplingbilaterally, removing lymphatic tissue along the iliac vessels to the obturator nerve region. The correct code in the choices for pelvic lymphadenectomy/sampling is38770. Pelvic washings and extensive exploration are included in the primary surgical service and do not add separate CPT codes in this scenario. Therefore, the correct coding combination is58210 and 38770.
NEW QUESTION # 238
(A patient has nausea with several episodes of emesis and severe stomach pain due to dehydration. Normal saline is infused in the same bag with2 mg ondansetron. Then15 mg ketorolac tromethamineis given for stomach pain. What J codes are reported for these services?)
- A. J2405 × 2, J1885
- B. J2405, J1885 × 15
- C. J2405 × 2, J1835 × 15
- D. J2405, J1885
Answer: A
Explanation:
HCPCS J-codes for medications are reported based on the drug and the code's definedbilling unit(e.g., mg per unit).Ondansetronis reported withJ2405, which is typically defined per1 mg(so 2 mg is reported as2 units# J2405 × 2).Ketorolac tromethamineis reported withJ1885, commonly defined per15 mg(so a 15 mg dose is1 unit# J1885). Option A matches this unit logic:J2405 × 2for 2 mg ondansetron, plusJ1885for 15 mg ketorolac.
Option B incorrectly multiplies ketorolac by 15 units, which would overstate the dose because the code unit is not 1 mg in this context. Option C underreports ondansetron units if the unit is 1 mg. Option D uses an incorrect J-code for ketorolac. CPC exam tip: always read theJ-code unit definitionand convert the administered dose into billable units accurately.
NEW QUESTION # 239
A surgeon removes the right and left fallopian tubes and the left ovary via an abdominal incision. How is this reported?
- A. 0
- B. 58700-50
- C. 58720-50
- D. 1
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 240
A 3-day-old died in her sleep. The pediatrician determined this was the result of crib death syndrome. The parents give permission to refer the newborn for a necropsy. The pathologist receives the newborn with her brain and performs a gross and microscopic examination. The physician issues the findings and reports they are consistent with a normal female newborn.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Procedure: Gross and microscopic examination of a newborn autopsy.
CPT Code:
88028: This code is for the autopsy, gross and microscopic examination of a stillborn or newborn.
Code Selection Justification: The procedure described matches the comprehensive postmortem examination of a newborn.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)
HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 241
A 52-year-old male patient with known AIDS saw his orthopedic physician today for severe pain in the right knee. The physician documents that his knee pain is due to a flare up of posttraumatic osteoarthritis and he gives him a cortisone injection in the right knee joint. The osteoarthritis is not related to AIDS.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this encounter?
- A. M17.11, B20
- B. B20, M17.31
- C. Z21, M08.861
- D. M17.31, B20
Answer: B
Explanation:
In this encounter, the correct coding order follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for coding multiple conditions when AIDS (B20) is documented, as it takes precedence. The patient's diagnosis of AIDS, documented with code B20, is reported as the primary diagnosis since it is a chronic condition. The M17.31 code is used to document unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, unrelated to AIDS but causing the patient's knee pain.
Explanation of each answer choice:
A: B20, M17.31: Correctly lists AIDS (B20) as the primary diagnosis and osteoarthritis of the right knee (M17.31) as the secondary diagnosis.
B: Z21, M08.861: Z21 represents asymptomatic HIV, not AIDS, which is incorrect here, and M08.861 is the code for juvenile idiopathic arthritis, not relevant in this case.
C: M17.11, B20: Incorrect as M17.11 is for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, not left, and does not prioritize B20 as required.
D: M17.31, B20: Incorrect because it does not list B20 as the primary diagnosis, which is necessary per coding guidelines when AIDS is documented.
Thus, the correct answer is A. B20, M17.31.
NEW QUESTION # 242
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