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NEW QUESTION # 437
Which component of ITIL involves handling anything that can impact services for either internal or public users?
- A. Change management
- B. Incident management
- C. Deployment management
- D. Problem management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident management is focused on limiting the impact of disruptions to an organization's services or operations, as well as returning their state to full operational status as soon as possible.
Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.
Deployment management is a subcomponent of change management and is where the actual code or configuration change is put into place. Change management involves the processes and procedures that allow an organization to make changes to its IT systems and services in a controlled manner.
NEW QUESTION # 438
Which of the following is not an enforceable governmental request?
Response:
- A. Warrant
- B. Court order
- C. Affidavit
- D. Subpoena
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 439
If a cloud computing customer wishes to guarantee that a minimum level of resources will always be available, which of the following set of services would compromise the reservation?
- A. CPU and software
- B. Memory and networking
- C. CPU and memory
- D. CPU and storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A reservation guarantees to a cloud customer that they will have access to a minimal level of resources to run their systems, which will help mitigate against DoS attacks or systems that consume high levels of resources.
A reservation pertains to memory and CPU resources. Under the concept of a reservation, memory and CPU are the guaranteed resources, but storage and networking are not included even though they are core components of cloud computing. Software would be out of scope for a guarantee and doesn't really pertain to the concept.
NEW QUESTION # 440
What type of identity system allows trust and verifications between the authentication systems of multiple organizations?
Response:
- A. Bidirectional
- B. Federated
- C. Collaborative
- D. Integrated
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 441
When data discovery is undertaken, three main approaches or strategies are commonly used to determine what the type of data, its format, and composition are for the purposes of classification.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main approaches to data discovery?
- A. Content analysis
- B. Labels
- C. Hashing
- D. Metadata
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hashing involves taking a block of data and, through the use of a one-way operation, producing a fixed-size value that can be used for comparison with other data. It is used primarily for protecting data and allowing for rapid comparison when matching data values such as passwords. Labels involve looking for header information or other categorizations of data to determine its type and possible classifications. Metadata involves looking at information attributes of the data, such as creator, application, type, and so on, in determining classification. Content analysis involves examining the actual data itself for its composition and classification level.
NEW QUESTION # 442
For performance purposes, OS monitoring should include all of the following except:
- A. Disk space
- B. Disk I/O usage
- C. CPU usage
- D. Print spooling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Print spooling is not a metric for system performance; all the rest are.
NEW QUESTION # 443
Digital investigations have adopted many of the same methodologies and protocols as other types of criminal or scientific inquiries.
What term pertains to the application of scientific norms and protocols to digital investigations?
- A. Forensics
- B. Scientific
- C. Methodological
- D. Investigative
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Forensics refers to the application of scientific methods and protocols to the investigation of crimes.
Although forensics has traditionally been applied to well-known criminal proceedings and investigations, the term equally applies to digital investigations and methods. Although the other answers provide similar- sounding terms and ideas, none is the appropriate answer in this case.
NEW QUESTION # 444
Which of the following report is most aligned with financial control audits?
- A. SOC 3
- B. SOC 2
- C. SSAE 16
- D. SOC 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
The SOC 1 report focuses primarily on controls associated with financial services. While IT controls are certainly part of most accounting systems today, the focus is on the controls around those financial systems.
NEW QUESTION # 445
Which of the following would be a reason to undertake a BCDR test?
- A. Change in staff
- B. Change in regulations
- C. Functional change of the application
- D. User interface overhaul of the application
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Any time a major functional change of an application occurs, a new BCDR test should be done to ensure the overall strategy and process are still applicable and appropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 446
What is one of the reasons a baseline might be changed?
- A. Numerous change requests
- B. To reduce redundancy
- C. Natural disaster
- D. Power fluctuation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
If the CMB is receiving numerous change requests to the point where the amount of requests would drop by modifying the baseline, then that is a good reason to change the baseline. None of the other reasons should involve the baseline at all.
NEW QUESTION # 447
When using an IaaS solution, what is a key benefit provided to the customer?
- A. The ability to scale up infrastructure services based on projected usage
- B. Transferred cost of ownership
- C. Metered and priced on the basis of units consumed
- D. Increased energy and cooling system efficiencies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
IaaS has a number of key benefits for organizations, which include but are not limited to these: -- - Usage is metered and priced on the basis of units (or instances) consumed. This can also be billed back to specific departments or functions.
- It has an ability to scale up and down infrastructure services based on actual usage. This is particularly useful and beneficial where there are significant spikes and dips within the usage curve for infrastructure.
- It has a reduced cost of ownership. There is no need to buy assets for everyday use, no loss of asset value over time, and reduced costs of maintenance and support.
- It has a reduced energy and cooling costs along with "green IT" environment effect with optimum use of IT resources and systems.
NEW QUESTION # 448
Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:
- A. Remove all active production instances
- B. Ensure logging continues
- C. Prevent new logins
- D. Initiate enhanced security controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
While the other answers are all steps in moving from normal operations to maintenance mode, we do not necessarily initiate any enhanced security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 449
Static software security testing typically uses __________ as a measure of how thorough the testing was.
- A. Flaws detected
- B. Code coverage
- C. Malware hits
- D. Number of testers
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 450
What are the phases of a software development lifecycle process model?
Response:
- A. Define, planning and requirements analysis, design, develop, testing, and maintenance
- B. Planning and requirements analysis, define, design, develop, testing, and maintenance
- C. Planning and requirements analysis, design, define, develop, testing, and maintenance
- D. Planning and requirements analysis, define, design, testing, develop, and maintenance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 451
When a customer performs a penetration test in the cloud, why isn't the test an optimum simu-lation of attack conditions?
Response:
- A. Advanced notice removes the element of surprise
- B. Regulator involvement changes the attack surface
- C. When cloud customers use malware, it's not the same as when attackers use malware
- D. Attackers don't use remote access for cloud activity
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 452
Which of the following is the least challenging with regard to eDiscovery in the cloud?
- A. Forensic analysis
- B. Complexities of International law
- C. Decentralization of data storage
- D. Identifying roles such as data owner, controller and processor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Forensic analysis is the least challenging of the answers provided as it refers to the analysis of data once it is obtained. The challenges revolve around obtaining the data for analysis due to the complexities of international law, the decentralization of data storage or difficulty knowing where to look, and identifying the data owner, controller, and processor.
NEW QUESTION # 453
......
ISC CCSP (Certified Cloud Security Professional) exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge required for secure cloud computing. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is designed for professionals who have a deep understanding of cloud computing technologies, architecture, security, and compliance requirements. By earning the CCSP certification, individuals can demonstrate their expertise in cloud security and gain a competitive edge in the job market.
Do I need to take the CCSP exam in a specific order?
No, there is no specific order for taking the exams. You can take one, two, or all three exams to focus on your individual requirements and preference for certification. The CCSP (172-410) exam is designed to be taken after other ISC certifications such as CISSP and CISM since it builds on the foundations laid by those certifications.
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